Cisco 300-101 ExamROUTE Implementing Cisco IP Routing

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Q31. Refer to the exhibit. When summarizing these routes, which route is the summarized route? 

A. OI 2001:DB8::/48 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0 

B. OI 2001:DB8::/24 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0 

C. OI 2001:DB8::/32 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0 

D. OI 2001:DB8::/64 [110/100] via FE80::A8BB:CCFF:FE00:6F00, Ethernet0/0 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q32. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring GRE between two routers running OSPF that are connected to each other via a WAN link, a network engineer notices that the two routers cannot establish the GRE tunnel to begin the exchange of routing updates. What is the reason for this? 

A. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 47. 

B. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking UDP 57. 

C. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking TCP 47. 

D. Either a firewall between the two routers or an ACL on the router is blocking IP protocol number 57. 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q33. Which parameter in an SNMPv3 configuration offers authentication and encryption? 

A. auth 

B. noauth 

C. priv 

D. secret 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q34. Two aspects of an IP SLA operation can be tracked: state and reachability. Which statement about state tracking is true? 

A. When tracking state, an OK return code means that the track's state is up; any other return code means that the track's state is down. 

B. When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the track's state is up; any other return code means that the track's state is down. 

C. When tracking state, an OK return code means that the track's state is down; any other return code means that the track's state is up. 

D. When tracking state, an OK or over threshold return code means that the track's state is down; any other return code means that the track's state is up. 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q35. A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.) 

A. IP routing 

B. FIB 

C. ARP cache 

D. MAC address table 

E. Cisco Express Forwarding table 

F. topology table 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:

Command Purpose

clear ip route {* |

Clears one or more routes from both the

{route |

unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The

prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:

interface]}

· *--All routes.

[vrf vrf-name]

Example:

· route--An individual IP route.

switch(config)# clear ip

· prefix/length--Any IP prefix.

route

10.2.2.2 · next-hop--The next-hop address · interface--The interface to reach the next-hop address.

The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, al-phanumeric string up to 32 characters.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/unicast/5_0_3_N1_1/Ci

sco_n5k_layer3_ucast_cfg_rel_503_N1_1/l3_manage-routes.html


Q36. An engineer executes the ip flow ingress command in interface configuration mode. What is the result of this action? 

A. It enables the collection of IP flow samples arriving to the interface. 

B. It enables the collection of IP flow samples leaving the interface. 

C. It enables IP flow while disabling IP CEF on the interface. 

D. It enables IP flow collection on the physical interface and its subinterfaces. 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q37. You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network. 

What type of route filtering is occurring on R6 

A. Distribute-list using an ACL 

B. Distribute-list using a prefix-list 

C. Distribute-list using a route-map 

D. An ACL using a distance of 255 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q38. Scenario: 

You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-config command. 

How many times was SPF algorithm executed on R4 for Area 1? 

A. 1 

B. 5 

C. 9 

D. 20 

E. 54 

F. 224 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q39. IPv6 has just been deployed to all of the hosts within a network, but not to the servers. Which feature allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 servers? 

A. NAT 

B. NATng 

C. NAT64 

D. dual-stack NAT 

E. DNS64 

Answer:

Explanation: 

NAT64 is a mechanism to allow IPv6 hosts to communicate with IPv4 servers. The NAT64 server is the

endpoint for at least one IPv4 address and an IPv6 network segment of 32-bits (for instance 64:ff9b::/96, see RFC 6052, RFC 6146). The IPv6 client embeds the IPv4 address it wishes to communicate with using these bits, and sends its packets to the resulting address. The NAT64 server then creates a NAT-mapping between the IPv6 and the IPv4 address, allowing them to communicate.

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NAT64


Q40. Which NetFlow component is applied to an interface and collects information about flows? 

A. flow monitor 

B. flow exporter 

C. flow sampler 

D. flow collector 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Flow monitors are the NetFlow component that is applied to interfaces to perform network

traffic monitoring. Flow monitors consist of a record and a cache. You add the record to the flow monitor

after you create the flow monitor. The flow monitor cache is automatically created at the time the flow

monitor is applied to the first interface. Flow data is collected from the network traffic during the monitoring

process based on the key and nonkey fields in the record, which is configured for the flow monitor and

stored in the flow monitor cache. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/fnetflow/command/

reference/fnf_book/fnf_01.html#w p1314030


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